Need help: Arden's Lemma

I need help for understanding Arden's Lemma.

Please help me.

Thank you.

This is Question:

Assume that A, B are two languages with e(stands for empty) is not included in A, and X is a language satisfying the relation X = AX (union) B. Then, X = A*B.

I can not understand this question.

[322 byte] By [kelton78a] at [2007-9-29 23:59:48]

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# 1

It seems to be saying that the union of two languages will be the same as their intersection if one of them does not include e. Does that sound right? Seems weird to me.

pmuurray@bigpond.coma at 2007-7-16 4:27:32 >

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# 2

It's not a question. But I think the lemma can be proved by strong induction.

YATArchivista at 2007-7-16 4:27:32 >

# 3

It's recursive.What is the question that you cannot understand?If it is the lemma in general surely you can search the web?

pk605a at 2007-7-16 4:27:32 >

# 4

do you meanX=A (union) Band X = A (intersect) B(what does the * mean?)matfud

matfuda at 2007-7-16 4:27:32 >

# 5

It's Kleene's star. Arden's Lemma relates to regexes.

YATArchivista at 2007-7-16 4:27:32 >

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Need help: Arden's Lemma

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